英语版——软件工程复习题

nature of software applications can be characterized by their information ()
a. complexity
b. content
c. determinacy
d. choices
2. Modern software applications are so complex that it is hard to develop mutually
exclusive category names.()
a. True
b. False
3. Software developers succeed more often than they fail, but software failures
receive more press coverage.()
a. True
b. False
4. Adding more people to a project that is already behind schedule is a good way
to catch up. ()
a. True
b. False
5. Modern CASE tools are more important than the newest hardware for achieving good
software quality and productivity.()
a. True
b. False
6. Change cannot be easily accommodated in most software systems, unless a system
was designed with change in mind.()
a. True
b. False
7. A general statement of objectives is all that is needed to begin developing a
piece of software.()
a. True
b. False
8. The formal technical review is an inadequate substitute for testing regardless
of nature of the software defect.()
a. True
b. False
9. What do people mean by the expression
Answer:This expression is intended to describe the chronic problems associated with
software failures, how software is developed, how the growing volume of software
is supported, and the difficulties in meeting the growing demand for more software.
10. Explain what is wrong with the notion that software engineering is too time
consuming and interferes with a programmer's productivity.
Answer:Producing a lot of code quickly is not the object of software development.
The software needs to perform correctly or it will need to be rewritten. Most software
products must be maintained for many years after they are developed, the time spent
documenting a program and planning for changes is easily justified over the product's
lifetime. Studies have shown the later a change is introduced in the development

process, the more costly it is to implement.
11. Which of the items listed below is not one of the software engineering layers()
a. Process
b. Manufacturing
c. Methods
d. Tools
12. What are the three generic phases of software engineering()
a. definition, development, support
b. what, how, where
c. programming, debugging, maintenance
d. analysis, design, testing
13. Which of these terms is a level name in the Capability Maturity Model()
a. Ad hoc
b. Repeatable
c. Reusable
d. Organized
CMM。它是对于软件组织在定义、实施、度量、控制和改善其软件过程的实践中 各个发展阶
段的描述。CMM的核心是把软件开发视为一个过程，并根据这一原则对软件开发和维护进行
过程监控和研究，以使其更加科学化、标准化、使企业能够更好地实现商业目标。CMM分为
五 个等级：一级为初始级，二级为可重复级，三级为已定义级，四级为已管理级，五级为优
化级。
14. Which of these items should be used to select a software process framework()
a. People
b. Product
c. Project
d. All of the above
15. In which software development problem solving stage are the results delivered()
a. Status quo
b. Problem definition
c. Technical development
d. Solution integration
16. The linear sequential model of software development is()
a. A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.
b. A good approach when a working program is required quickly.
c. The best approach to use for projects with large development teams.
d. An old fashioned model that is rarely used any more.
17. The linear sequential model of software development is also known as the ()
a. Classical life cycle model
b. Fountain model
c. Spiral model
d. Chaos model
18. The prototyping model of software development is ()
a. A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.
b. A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly.

c. The best approach to use for projects with large development teams.
d. A risky model that rarely produces a meaningful product.
19. The rapid application development model is ()
a. Another name for component-based development.
b. A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly.
c. A high speed adaptation of the linear sequential model.
d. All of the above.
20. Evolutionary software process models ()
a. Are iterative in nature
b. Can easily accommodate product requirements changes
c. Do not generally produce throw away systems
d. All of the above
21. The incremental model of software development is ()
a. A reasonable approach when requirements are well defined.
b. A good approach when a working core product is required quickly.
c. The best approach to use for projects with large development teams.
d. A revolutionary model that is not used for commercial products.
22. The spiral model of software development ()
a. Ends with the delivery of the software product
b. Is more chaotic than the incremental model
c. Includes project risks evaluation during each iteration
d. All of the above
23. The concurrent development model is()
a. Another name for the rapid application development model.
b. Often used for the development of clientserver applications.
c. Only used for development of parallel or distributed systems.
d. Used whenever a large number of change requests are anticipated.
24. The component- based development model is()
a. Only appropriate for computer hardware design.
b. Not able to support the development of reusable components.
c. Dependent on object technologies for support.
d. Not cost effective by known quantifiable software metrics.
25. Describe the phases of the prototyping model for software development
Answer:Requirements are gathered by having the customer and developer meet and
identify whatever objectives and requirements they can. Quick design follows,
focusing on representation of the software that will be visible to the customer.
A prototype is constructed by the developer and evaluated by the customer and used
to refine the requirements. Iteration occurs and the prototype is tuned to satisfy
the customer's needs.
26. Describe the role of risk analysis in evolutionary process models like the spiral
model.
Answer:As each prototype is enhanced by iteration through the process steps, both
the technical and management risks are assessed to see if it is still possible to
compete the project which its required functionality with acceptable time and cost

constraints.
27. Effective software project management focuses on()
a. people, performance, payoff, product
b. people, product, performance, process
c. people, product, process, project
d. people, process, payoff, product
28. The first step in project planning is to ()
a. determine the budget.
b. select a team organizational model.
c. determine the project constraints.
d. establish the objectives and scope.
29. Process framework activities are populated with (
a. milestones
b. work products
c. QA points
d. All of the above
30. Which factor is the least important when choosing the organizational structure
for a software team ()
a. degree of communication desired
b. predicted size of the resulting program
c. rigidity of the delivery date
d. size of the project budget
31. One of the best ways to avoid frustration during the software development process
is to ()
a. give team members more control over process and technical decisions.
b. give team members less control over process and technical decisions.
c. hide bad news from the project team members until things improve.
d. reward programmers based on their productivity.
32. Which of these software characteristics is not a factor contributing to project
coordination difficulties
a. interoperability
b. performance
c. scale
d. uncertainty
33. Which of these software characteristics are used to determine the scope of a
software project (
a. context,lines of code, function
b. context, function, communication requirements
c. information objectives, function, performance
d. communications requirements, performance, information objectives
34. What activity does a software project manager need to perform to minimize the
risk of software failure
a. double the project team size
b. request a large budget

c. allow absolutely no schedule slippage
d. define milestones and track progress
35. Which of these is not a valid reason for measuring software processes, products,
and resources
a. to characterize them
b. to evaluate them
c. to price them
d. to improve them
36. Process indicators enable a software project manager to
a. assess the status of an on-going project
b. track potential risks
c. adjust work flow or tasks
d. all of the above
37. Which of the following items are not measured by software project metrics
a. inputs
b. markets
c. outputs
d. results
38. Which of the following software quality factors is most likely to affected by
radical changes to computing architectures
a. operation
b. transition
c. revision
d. none of the above
39. Which of the following provide useful measures of software quality
a. correctness, performance, integrity, usability
b. reliability, maintainability, integrity, sales
c. correctness, maintainability, size, satisfaction
d. correctness, maintainability, integrity, usability
40. To be an effective aid in process improvement the baseline data used must be:
a. based on reasonable guesstimates from past projects
b. measured consistently across similar projects
c. collected over the past 6 months
d. based on all previously completed projects
41. The software engineering environment (SEE) consists of which of the following
a. customers and users
b. developers and managers
c. hardware platforms and software tools
d. none of the above
42. LOC- based estimation techniques require problem decomposition based on
a. information domain values
b. project schedule
c. software functions
d. process activities

43. FP-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition based on
a. information domain values
b. project schedule
c. software functions
d. process activities
44. Process-based estimation techniques require problem decomposition based on
a. information domain values and data objects
b. project schedule and milestones
c. software functions and process activities
d. none of the above
45. Software risk always involves two characteristics
a. fire fighting and crisis management
b. known and unknown risks
c. uncertainty and loss
d. staffing and budget
46. Three categories of risks are
a. business risks, personnel risks, budget risks
b. project risks, technical risks, business risks
c. planning risks, technical risks, personnel risks
d. management risks, technical risks, design risks
47. Risk projection attempts to rate each risk in two ways
a. likelihood and cost
b. likelihood and impact
c. likelihood and consequences
d. likelihood and exposure
48. Risk tables are sorted by
a. probability and cost
b. probability and impact
c. probability and consequences
d. probability and exposure
49. An effective risk management plan will need to address which of the following
issues
a. risk avoidance
b. risk monitoring
c. contingency planning
d. all of the above
50. Which of the following is not one of the guiding principles of software project
scheduling
a. compartmentalization
b. market assessment
c. time allocation
d. effort validation
51. A task set is a collection of
a. engineering work tasks, milestones, deliverables

b. task assignments, cost estimates, metrics
c. milestones, deliverables, metrics
d. responsibilities, milestones, documents
52. Adaptation criteria are used to determine the
a. costs of product maintenance
b. adjustments to the project schedule
c. best project type classification for a software process
d. recommended degree of rigor for software process
53. For purposes of determining the major engineering tasks and distributing them
on the project time line, the project manager should assume that the process model
used is
a. linear sequential
b. iterative
c. evolutionary
d. any of the above
54. The purpose of earned value analysis is to
a. determine how to compensate developers based on their productivity
b. provide a quantitative means of assessing software project progress
c. provide a qualitative means of assessing software project progress
d. set the price point for a software product based on development effort
55. List 3 principles for scheduling software projects.
Answer:Compartmentalization, interdependency, time allocation, effort validation,
defined responsibilities, defined outcomes, defined milestones
56. Variation control in the context of software engineering involves controlling
variation in the
a. process applied
b. resources expended
c. product quality attributes
d. all of the above
57. A key concept of quality control is that all work products
a. are delivered on time and under budget
b. have complete documentation
fc. have measurable speciications for process outputs
d. are thoroughly tested before delivery to the customer
58. Statistical quality assurance involves
a. using sampling in place of exhaustive testing of software
b. surveying customers to find out their opinions about product quality
c. tracing each defect to its underlying cause, isolating the
and moving to correct them
d. tracing each defect to its underlying causes and using the Pareto principle to
correct each problem found
59. Software reliability problems can almost always be traced to
a. errors in requirements gathering
b. errors in design and implementation

c. human error
d. errors in operation
60. What is a formal technical review and why is one conducted
Answer:The purpose of an FTR is to have a group of software engineers examine a
discrete work product and determine whether or not the product is free of defects
using the software specifications and standards as the review criteria.
61. Which of these are valid software configuration items
a. case tools
b. documentation
c. executable programs and test data
d. all of the above
62. Which of the following tasks is not part of software configuration management
a. change control
b. reporting
c. statistical quality control
d. version control
63. Use-cases are scenarios that describe
a. how software is to be used in a given situation.
b. how CASE tools will be used to construct the system.
c. the build plan for a software product.
d. the test cases for a software product.
64. Information flow represents the manner in which data and control
a. are related to one another.
b. changes each moves through the system.
c. will be implemented in the final design.
d. none of the above.
65. In the context of requirements analysis, two types of problem partitioning are
a. bottom-up and top-down
b. horizontal and vertical
c. subordinate and superordinate
d. none of the above
66. What are the five phases of software requirements analysis
Answer:
Problem recognition
Evaluation and synthesis
Modeling
Specification
Review
67. What models are created during the analysis phase of a software development
process What is the purpose of each
Answer:
Data model - shows relationships among system objects
Functional model - describes the functions enabling the transformations of system
objects

Behavioral model - shows manner that software responds to events initiated from the
outside world
68. Which of the following is not an objective for building an analysis model
a. define set of software requirements
b. describe customer requirements
c. develop an abbreviated简短的 solution for the problem
d. establish basis for software design
69. Which of the following is not an area of concern in the design model
a. architecture
b. data
c. interfaces
d. project scope
70. The importance of software design can be summarized in a single word
a. accuracy
b. complexity
c. efficiency
d. quality
71. What types of abstraction are used in software design
a. control
b. data
c. procedural
d. all of the above
72. Which of these model types does not represent a software architecture
a. data
b. dynamic
c. process
d. structural
73. Which of the following is not part of software architecture
a. algorithm details
b. databases
c. data design
d. program structure
74. An architectural style encompasses which of the following elements
a. constraints
b. set of components
c. semantic models
d. all of the above
75. The criteria used to assess the quality of an architectural design should be
based on system
a. accessibility and reliability
b. data and control
c. functionality
d. implementation details
76. In transaction mapping the first level factoring results in the

a. creation of a CFD
b. derivation of the control hierarchy
c. distribution of worker modules
d. refinement of the module view
77. A necessary supplement to transform or transaction mapping needed to create a
complete architectural design is
a. entity relationship diagrams
b. the data dictionary
c. processing narratives for each module
d. test cases for each module
78. Which of the following interface design principles reduce the user's memory load
a. define intuitive shortcuts
b. disclose information in a progressive fashion
c. establish meaningful defaults
d. all of the above
79. Interface consistency implies that
a. input mechanisms remain the same throughout the application
b. each application should have its own distinctive look and feel
c. navigational methods are context sensitive
d. answers a and b
80. Which of these are objectives for software testing
a. determine the productivity of programmers
b. eliminate the need for future program maintenance
c. eliminate every error prior to release
d. uncover software errors
81. Black-box testing attempts to find errors in which of the following categories
a. incorrect or missing functions
b. interface errors
c. performance errors
d. all of the above
82. What is the normal order of activities in which software testing is organized
a. unit, integration, system, validation
b. system, integration, unit, validation
c. unit, integration, validation, system
d. none of the above
83. The first step in any OOA process model are to
a. build an object-relationship model
b. define collaborations between objects
c. elicit customer requirements
d. select a representation language
84. UML (unified modeling language) analysis modeling focuses on the
a. behavioral model and environment model
b. behavioral model and implementation model
c. user model and environmental model

d. user model and structural model
85. Describe the object-oriented software domain analysis process.
Software domain analysis is the identification, analysis, and specification of
common, reusable capabilities within a specific application domain in terms of
common objects, classes, subassemblies, and frameworks.
86. What are the steps needed to build an object-behavior model
(1)Evaluate the use-cases to understand the interaction sequence within the system.
(2)Identify events that drive the interaction sequence and how the events relate
to specific objects.
(3)Create an event trace for each use-case.
(4)Build a state transition diagram for the system.
(5)Review the object-behavior model to verify accuracy and consistency.