雅思听力练习材料及答案

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Listening Test 1

TIME ALLOWED: 30 minutes
NUMBER OF QUESTIONS: 40


Instructions



You will hear a number of different recording and you will have to answer questions on what
you hear
.
There will be time for you to read the instructions and questions and you will have a chance
to check your work
.
All the recordings will be played ONCE only
.
The test is in four sections. Write your answers in the listening question booklet
.
At the end of the test you will be given ten minutes to transfer your answers to an
answer sheet
.
No turn to Section 1 on page 2
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Section 1
Questions 1 - 9

Questions 1 - 6

Listen to the conversation between your friend and the housing officer and complete the list
below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR NUMBERS of each answer
.

HOUSING LIST
Address
Mr J Devenport
82 Salisbury Road
Brighton BN16 3AN
Tel 01273 884673
Mrs E. S. Jarvis
2 Wicken Street
Brighton BN15 4JH
Tel 01273 774621
Mrs C Sparshott
180 Sillwood Road
Brighton BN14 9RY

Tel(3) ________
Mr A Nasiry
164 Preston Road
Brighton BN5 7RT
Tel 01273 703865
(6) ________
2 Harrow Road
Brighton BN9 9HK
Tel 01273 745621
Number of rooms

2 bedrooms
sitting room
kit. bath.
(1) ________
_____________
sitting room
kit. bath.
2 large rms
shared kit. and
bath.
Price per week
Additional
information


Unfurnished
First floor
Example

?120
(2) ________
?35 Nice area
(4) ___________
______________
large bedroom
sitting room with
kitchenette, bath.
2 large rooms
kit. bath.

(5) ________
Ground floor
Central
?86 No pets

Questions 7 - 9

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer
.

7. When is the accommodation available?
________________________________ ____________________________________________

8. Where is the telephone?
____________ __________________________________________________ ______________

9. How is the flat heated?
___________________________________________ _________________________________

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Section 2
Questions 10 - 20


Questions 10 - 14


Circle the correct letters A-D
.

10. How many conventions have already been held?
A 2
B 3
C 4
D 5

11. Where is the convention being held?
A Brisbane
B Melbourne
C Canberra
D Sydney

12. How long is the convention for?
A 2 days
B 5 days
C 6 days
D 7 days

13. How many Australian speakers will be attending the convention?
A 20
B 25
C 30
D 35

14. Which countries are the guest speakers from?
A Britain and Canada
B Canada and the US
C Britain and the US
D Britain, Canada and the US





Questions 15 - 17


Listen to the directions and match the places in questions 15 - 17 to the appropriate letters
A-G on the map
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Example
Peroni's
Answer
________ A ________

15. Jumbo Sandwich Shop ________

16. Slim's Vegetarian ________

17. The Geneva Bistro ________



Questions 18 - 20

Look at this page from the program. Tick (√) if the information is correct or write in the
changes
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CONVENTION PROGRAM
Example Answer

Afternoon sessions: start at 2.00pm ... 2.30 ________
finish at 4.00pm ... √ __________
TALKS
(18) ________
Blue Room (19) ________

Distribution of Goods
...
Barbara Moore
________
Red Room
(20) ________

by Peter Newstead

Orange Room
... cancelled ________

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Section 3
Questions 21 - 32

Questions 21 - 24

Complete the table showing the prices and types of coffee sold in each Common Room
.
I = Instant
R = Real
E = Espresso


Type of coffee
Price of coffee

European
Studies
Development
Studies
(21)
(22)
E
(23)
Arts
Building
American
Studies
(24)
25p
Example

I
Example

20p
Questions 25 - 32


Complete the table showing the number of points 1, 2 or 3 awarded to the food offered by
each Common Room
.


Matthew
Alice
Jenny















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Arts
Building

(25)
(26)

European
Studies
Refectory
(28)
(29)
(30)

American
Studies
Example

1
(27)
(31)
(32)

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Section 4
Questions 33 - 40


Questions 33 - 35


Look at Questions 33 - 35 below and the grid. Tick (√) the relevant boxes in each column
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33. Which countries
are affected by
Britain's pollution?
34. Which country
relies heavily on
nuclear power?
35. Which countries
use lime filtering to
reduce the amount
of chemical pollutant
released into the
atmosphere?









COUNTRY
Australia
Belgium
Denmark
France
Germany
Holland
Japan
Sweden
USA



















Questions 36 - 40 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer
.

36. When did the fish stock there begin to decline? __________

37. What did scientists inject into the land? __________

38. Has the situation improved? __________

39. How effective is the use of limestone slurry? __________

40. What is one of the major disadvantages of using __________
limestone slurry?







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Listening Test 2

TIME ALLOWED: 30 minutes
NUMBER OF QUESTIONS: 40
Section 1
Questions 1 - 9


Questions 1 - 6


Complete the table comparing the two towns. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for
each answer
.


Distance from
nearest city

Population

Advantages

Disadvantages

Main industry

Climate

Main
attractions

Albany Watford
17 miles

80 - 90000

good entertainment

(4) ________
crime

electronics
light engineering

(5) ________
(6) ________
Example
: 150 miles

(1) ________

friendly, relaxed
slow pace of life

(2) ________
no jobs

(3) ________

wet and windy
beautiful beaches
Questions 7 - 9


Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer
.
7 What does Gordon like about where he is living now?

______________________________________ ______________________________________

8 When does Maureen think she might go back to Albany?

______________________________ ______________________________________________

9 How long is Gordon's new contract?
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_ __________________________________________________ _________________________
Section 2
Questions 10 - 19


Questions 10 - 12


Listen to the directions and match the places in questions 10 - 12 to the appropriate letters
A - G on the map
.


Example
: main stage
Answer
________ A ________

10 first aid post ________
11 public telephones ________
12 security post ________




Questions 13 - 14


Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer
.

13 If you want to be readmitted to the stadium, you must ________
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14 There won't be a festival next year, if there are ________

Questions 15 - 19


Complete the table with information about the festival program. Write NO MORE THAN
THREE WORDS OR NUMBERS for each answer
.

Name
Brazilian Drum
Band
Claude and Jacques
Great

Grapefruit
Crossed Wires
Tom Cobble
Flying Barito
Brothers
Winston Smiles
Great Mysteron

Blue Grass Ben
The Proffets


















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Type of act
drum band
mime artists
(15) ________
jazz fusion
comedian
acrobats
reggae singer
magic and
illusion
(19) ________
music group
Stage Time
7.00
8.00
7.00
(16) ________
10.30
9.00
(18) ________
9.30
12.00
12.00
Example
:
________ 3 ________
3
2
1
1
(17) ________
3
2
2
1

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Section 3
Questions 20 - 29


Questions 20 - 22


Circle the correct answer A - D
.

20 What does Frank have to do next?
A get the results of the survey back
B draw the results of the survey
C make some conclusions
D collect more information

21 What is Theresa's market research project on?
A violence on television
B transportation in the city
C the history of transportation
D bureaucracy in the city

22 What did the results of Frank's survey show?
A everyone thinks there is too much violence on TV
B most people think there is too much violence on TV
C there is no real agreement on the amount of violence
D there is a problem with the survey

Questions 23 - 25

Complete the summary. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer
.

Summary

Children might see the heroes of violent films as (23) ________ so most people think that
violent programs should only be shown after 10.00 p.m. However, there is a (24) ________
who feel that violent films should be banned. Although news broadcasts are violent, people
felt they shouldn't be banned as they are (25) ________

Questions 26 - 29


Write the answer using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR NUMBERS
.

26 How many questionnaires did Frank get back? ______________________________________
27 Theresa says Frank's survey doesn't represent _______________________________________
28 Where is Theresa going to interview her respondents?
______________________________ ______________________________________________
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29 The best type of questions are ____________ ________________________________________
Section 4
Questions 30 - 40


Questions 30 - 35


Complete the notes. Write NO MORE THAN ONE NUMBER OR THREE WORDS for each
answer
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Quality Control
Example
:
Quality control is more than an inspection of the finished product
Finished product inspection

The main disadvantage of finished product inspection is that it cannot make (30)
________
Quality control as a continuous process

Manufactures usually consider quality control to be an ongoing process.
The advantages are: (31) _____________________________
(32) ______________________________
It is easier to detect faults on components.
Raw material inspection

There is no point in processing defective raw materials.
Eighty-seven per cent of large firms and (33) ________ of small firms have a standard raw
material inspection procedure.
It is also useful to inspect incoming components.
What are we testing for
?
Although the testing for an expensive car and a child's toy is very different in both cases
the main priority is (34) ________
Function testing answers the question: Does the product do what it's supposed to?
Formal defects investigation

Usually used by high-tech industries.
Environmental impact report

Testing must assess the impact of both the product itself and (35) ________











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Questions 36 - 37


Circle the correct letter A - C for each questions
.

36 ________ of companies have standards in line with the Standards Association of Australia.
A 87%
B 80%
C 65%
37 ________ of companies have quality control regulations which apply international
standards.
A 22%
B 23%
C 65%
38 Which of the following pie charts best represents the level of the people responsible for
quality control?







Questions 39 - 40


Name TWO of the effects of releasing low quality products

Circle TWO letters A - E
.

A danger of lawsuits B loss of customer goodwill
C wasted production time D compensation costs
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E bankruptcy



Listening Test 3

TIME ALLOWED: 30 minutes
NUMBER OF QUESTIONS: 41

Section 1
Questions 1 - 10


Complete the notes. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer
.

KATE
Her first impressions of the town
Type of accommodation
Her feelings about the accommodation
Her feelings about the other students
Name of course
Difficulties experienced on the course
Suggestions for improving the course

LUKI
First type of accommodation
Problem with the first accommodation
Second type of accommodation
Name of course
Comments about the course
Suggestions for improving the course





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Example Quiet

(1)
(2)
(3)
Environmental Studies

(4)
(5)

(6)
(7)
(8)
(9)
Computer room busy

(10)

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Section 2
Questions 11 - 20


Complete the notes below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer
.

There are many kinds of bicycles available:
racing
touring
(11) ________
ordinary



They vary in price and (12) ________.

Prices range from $$50.00 to (13) ________.

Single speed cycles are suitable for (14) ________.

Three speed cycles are suitable for (15) ________.

Five and ten speed cycles are suitable for longer distances, hills and (16) ________.

Ten speed bikes are better because they are (17) ________ in price but (18) ________.

Buying a cycle is like (19) ________.

The size of the bicycle is determined by the size of the (20 ________.





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Section 3
Questions 21 - 32


Questions 21 - 24


Circle the correct answer
.

21. At first Fiona thinks that Martin's tutorial topic is
A inappropriate.
B dull.
C interesting.
D fascinating.

22. According to Martin, the banana
A has only recently been cultivated.
B is economical to grow.
C is good for your health.
D is his favourite food.

23. Fiona listens to Martin because she
A wants to know more about bananas.
B has nothing else to do today.
C is interested in the economy of Australia.
D wants to help Martin.

24. According to Martin, bananas were introduced into Australia from
A India.
B England.
C China.
D Africa.











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Questions 25 - 30

Complete Martin's notes. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer
.
Commercially grown banana plant




Each banana tree produces (25) ________ of bananas.

On modern plantations in tropical conditions a tree can bear fruit after (16) ________.

Banana trees prefer to grow (27) ________ and they require rich soil and (28) ________. The fruit
is often protected by (29) ________.

Ripe bananas emit a gas which helps other (30) ________.

Questions 31 and 32


Circle the TWO correct boxes
.
Consumption of Australian bananas


A Europe
B Asia
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C New Zealand
D Australia
E Other

Section 4
Questions 33 - 41


Questions 33 - 35


Circle the correct answer
.

According to the first speaker:

33. The focus of the lecture series is on
A organising work and study.
B maintaining a healthy lifestyle.
C coping with homesickness.
D settling in at university.

34. The lecture will be given by
A the president of the Union.
B the campus doctor.
C a sports celebrity.
D a health expert.

According to the second speaker:

35. This week's lecture is on
A campus food.
B dieting.
C sensible eating.
D saving money.

Questions 36 - 39


Complete the notes. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer
.

A balanced diet

A balanced diet will give you enough vitamins for normal daily living.
Vitamins in food can be lost through (36) ________.

Types of vitamins
:
(a) Fat soluble vitamins are stored by the body.
(b) Water soluble vitamins — not stored, so you need a (37) ________.

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Getting enough vitamins

Eat (38) ________ of foods.
Buy plenty of vegetables and store them in (39) ________.

Questions 40 - 41


Complete the diagram by writing NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS in the boxes provided
.

Example

Try to avoid

sugar, salt and butter

40 ________
________
milk, lean meat, fish, nuts, eggs



41 ________
________
bread, vegetables and fruit



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Listening Test 4
Section 1
Questions 1 - 11


Questions 1 - 3


Circle the correct answer
.

1. Claudia and Toshio decide to go to ...
A the coast. s B the desert.
C Sydney. D the mountains.
2. Toshio doesn't like ...
A setting up tents. B sleeping outdoors.
C campfires. D cooking outdoors.
3. Claudia doesn't like youth hostels because ...
A she dislikes meeting people. B there's no privacy.
C the beds are uncomfortable. D the kitchens are unfamiliar.

Questions 4 - 7


Tick (√) if the information is correct, or write down the necessary changes (NO MORE THAN
THREE WORDS)

Who will join Claudia and Toshio?

Question Name
Peter
Maria
Gyorg
David Wong
Walter Wong
Jennifer
Michael Sullivan
Will join Going to ...
Hong Kong





(4)

(5)
(6)
(7)









Example
√




Stay home


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Questions 8 - 11


Complete the form below by filling in the blanks
.
How does Toshio fill out the form?

Sunnystones Holiday Rental Agency
Rental Application Form



Name:


Address:


Phone:
Applicant #1



Name:


Address:


Phone:
Applicant #2

Toshio Jones



52
Miller St



545 668
Claudia Hussein


(Question 8)
614 ________
St

Chapmanville


543 234
(Question 9)
Credit card number: ___________________________________
(Question 10)
Credit card type: _____________________________________
(Question 11)
Deposit amount: $$ ____________________________________


















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Section 2
Questions 12 - 21


Questions 12 and 13


Choose the letters corresponding to the correct people
.

12. Which person is Bruce Chandler? 13. Which person is Donna Wilcox?
























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Question 14


Circle the letter A - D indicating the location of the speaker
.

14. Where is Jennifer Davis (the speaker)?



Questions 15 and 16


Write a NUMBER for each answer
.

15. The Maslow University campus has ________ buildings.
16. The buildings are on ________ hectares of land.

Questions 17 - 19


Circle the correct answer
.

17. Before immigration, John Maslow was ...
A a teacher. C a college president.
B a trainer. D a mathematician.
18. Maslow's Teacher's College ...
A operated for 10 years.
B was originally a private college.
C closed in 1848.
D trained high school teachers.
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19. Maslow University ...
A is 11 kilometres from the city centre.
B was established in 1866.
C was established after Riversdale University.
D was built next to Maslow Teacher's College.

Questions 20 and 21


Circle TWO correct letters
.

20 - 21. Riversdale University normally beats Maslow University at ...
A basketball.
B women's swimming.
C soccer.
D track and field.
E baseball.
F men's swimming.
G football.


























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Section 3
Questions 22 - 33


Questions 22 and 23


Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or NUMBERS for each
answer
.

NOTES ON COFFEE



22.

23.


Example

? Journal:
Food Economics Review

? Coffee farming provides work for ________ people
? Great economic importance
? Ranked ________ most important commodity in world
? Most farmers produce coffee on 4-5 hectares of land
Questions 24 - 27


Complete the table
.

COFFEE BEAN
TYPE
GROWING
USED FOR
ALTITUDE COUNTRY
LARGEST GROWER
Example
Arabica
premium coffee
600-2000 metres
(24) ________ (25) ________
(26) ________
Brazil

(27) ________ Robusta
Liberica
below 1200
metres














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Questions 28 - 30


Tick (√) the relevant box for each country.

Country
(28)

Instant coffee
Brazil
France
Germany
Italy
Japan
Norway
Sweden
USA
UK





















Espresso coffee





√
Example

√
Example

Brewed coffee
Style of coffee preferred
(29) (30)
Questions 31 - 33


Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer
.

31. The ICO was established by _____________________________________.
32. ________________________________________ destroyed the 1975 Brazil coffee crop.

Circle the correct answer
.

33. Because of the Brazil coffee crop failure ...
A the ICO had to supply the world coffee market.
B prices rose, then fell.
C prices remained high.
D premium coffee became unavailable.





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Section 4
Questions 34 - 41


Questions 34 and 35


Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer
.
What is the main interest in a meeting ...

34. for the meeting leader? __________________
35. for the facilitator? ______________________

Questions 36 - 41


Complete the table below by writing the appropriate letter A-E in each blank box
.
Link each task below to the appropriate global responsibility.

Facilitator's global responsibilitites

'Blueprinting' = A
'Pro-integration' = B
'Focusing' = C
'Prompting' = D
'Friction management' = E

Tasks

writing an agenda
defining technical terms
maintaining harmony
getting to know participants
guiding discussion
promoting agreement
encouraging everyone participation










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Example A

(36) ________________
(37) ________________
(38) ________________
(39) ________________
(40) ________________
(41) ________________

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Listening Test 5
Section 1
Questions 1 - 11


Questions 1 and 2


Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS, or circle the correct answer
.

1. What is the subject of this morning's lecture?

_______________________________________

2. What time does the lecture begin?



Question 3


Listen to the directions and find the Bradley Building. Choose the appropriate letter
.

3. Where is the Bradley Building?




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William and Mary

Questions 4 - 6


Circle the appropriate letter, A, B, C or D, as you listen
.

4. Which floor is Lecture Theatre H on?
A fourth C eighth
B sixth D tenth

5. How do William and Mary go to Lecture Theatre H?
A escalator, then lift C stairs only
B lift, then stairs D stairs, then lift

6. What does the sign say?
A Lecture postponed until 10.00 today
C Dr Jones ill — lecture cancelled today
B Lecturer change — Professor Smith to present today's lecture
D Lecture to be held in Theatre C today











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Questions 7 - 11


Complete the table below
.

Mary's timetable
Class
Chemistry lecture
Chemistry lab
Genetics lecture
Microbiology lecture
Microbiology tutorial
Plant pathology lecture
Plant pathology lab
Plant pathology tutorial






























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Day of week Time
Example Tuesday
Wednesday
(8) ________
(9) ________
Wednesday
Friday
Tuesday
Wednesday
Example 10 o'clock

(7) ________ o'clock
5 o'clock
2 o'clock
(10) ________ o'clock
(11) ________ o'clock
3 o'clock
12 o'clock

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Section 2
Questions 12 - 23


Questions 12 - 15


Complete the notes below. Write a NUMBER or ONE WORD for each answer
.

The Island of Astoria

12. ? Distance from New Zealand: __________________ km
13. ? Direction from New Zealand: _________________
? Size compared to New Zealand:
Example 25% larger

14. ? Shape of island: __________________
15. ? Climate: _______________________

Questions 16 - 23


Complete the table. Write a NUMBER or NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer
.

The Provinces of Astoria

Province
Hornchurch
New Devon
Anglezark
New Albion
















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Part of island
(16) ________
Population Language
Main tourist
attraction
Example 2.5
million
(17) ________
(19) ________
1.5 million
Example
English
English
English
(22) ________
Example
culture

(18) ________
(20) ________
(23) ________
Example
northast


(21) ________

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Section 3
Questions 24 - 33


Questions 24 - 26


Complete the table by ranking the THREE senses indicated
.
How did Immanuel Kant rank the senses?

Sense Ranking

touch

24. hearing ________
25. sight ________
smell Example 5
26. taste ________

Questions 27 - 29


Circle the correct answer
.

27. Immanuel Kant believed..
A only smell was subjective. C touch was subjective.
B hearing was subjective. D smell was not necessary.

28. A person who is 'odour- blind' ...
A can smell only some odours.
C does not think flowers smell wonderful.
B is unable to smell flowers.
D is probably colour-blind, too.

29. The sense of smell ...
A is half as strong after the age of 65.
C is stronger in women than men.
B is not affected by age.
D is weakened in half of people over 80.

Questions 30 - 33

Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer
.

30. The country which buys the most perfume is ___________________.
31. A perfume thought to be ___________________ will sell well.
32. French scientists believe the ___________________ determines how a perfume will smell on a
person.
33. Some people who dislike perfume compare it to ___________________.
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Section 4
Questions 34 - 42


Questions 34 and 35


Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer
.
34. In Australia, when MUST men shake hands? ___________________
35. What is the message when men DON'T shake hands? __________



Questions 36 - 42


Match the gestures with their messages. Choose the appropriate letters A-I from the table.
You may use a letter more than once
.

FOR AUSTRALIAN MEN

Example a weak handshake D

36. crushing handshake ________
37. half handshake ________
38. quickly released handshake ________
39. long handshake ________

FOR AUSTRALIAN WOMEN

40. half handshake ________
41. full, firm handshake ________

FOR BOTH SEXES

42. no eye contact during handshake ________

A
B
C
D
E
F
G
H
I



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no message
confidence
lack of confidence
lack of interest
arrogance
competence
competitiveness
mutual liking
recognition

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Listening Test 6
Section 1
Questions 1 - 12

Questions 1 - 8

Listen to the conversation between a student, Angela Tung, and Bob Wills, who is the
student adviser at a language school. Complete the form. Write NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS OR NUMBERS for each answer.

REQUEST FOR SPECIAL LEAVE

Name: Angela Tung
Example
Student number: H5712
Address: (1) ___________________________________ Tamworth, 2340
Telephone number: 8106745
Course: (2) ____________________________________
Teacher's name: (3) _____________________________
Student visa expiry date: (4) _____________________________
I wish to request leave in Term: (5) _____________________________
Dates of leave: (6) ________ to (7) ________
Number of working days missed: (8) ____________________

Questions 9 - 12

Circle the appropriate letter A - D


9. Why does Angela want to take leave?
A to visit her aunt and uncle
B to see the National Gallery
C to see the Southern Highlands
D to study more writing
10. Where is Angela going?
A Tamworth
B Brisbane
C Armidale
D Sydney
11. Who is going with Angela?
A her uncle
B her mother
C her aunt
D her father
12. When will Angela go home to her own country?
A in five years
B in twelve months
C in two months
D when her mother goes home
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Section 2
Questions 13 - 24

Questions 13 - 18

Complete the calendar while you listen to the tape. Use words from the box. There are more
words in the box than you need. Some words may be used more than once.

cleaner

dry cleaner

lift

Sunday
May
17


24


31
(18) _____
Monday

18


25
(17) _____
June
1

Tuesday

19
(16) ____

26


2



3

Wednesda
y

20


27


4


28
Thursday

21
Friday

22
(13) _____

29
(14) _____

5
(15) _____
Saturday

23


30


6

garbage

charity

library
filters

gardener

electricity
stove

paper

water

Questions 19 - 24

Circle the appropriate letter A-D

19. Where has Martha gone?
A London
B Sydney
C New York
D Paris
20. Why is Martha away from home?
A She's visiting friends
B She's at a conference
C She's on business
D She's setting up a business
21. Who will Martha meet while she's away?
A an old school friend
B a friend of her mother's
C an old university friend
D an old teacher
22. What has Martha left for John?
A a letter
B a meal
C a book
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D a bill

23. Who does Martha want John to telephone?
A the optometrist
B the telephone company
C the doctor
D the dentist

24. What is the code for Martha's alarm system?
A enter 2190
B 2190 enter
C 9120 enter
D enter 9120































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Section 3
Questions 25 - 36


Questions 25 - 29


Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS OR NUMBERS for each
answer
.

LANGUAGE SCHOOL ENROLMENT FORM

Name of Applicant:
Vijay Paresh


Telephone number: 909 2467

Language to be learned: (25) __________________________

Location of class: (26) __________________________

Time of class: (27) __________________________

Name of class: (28) __________________________

Date of commencement of class: (29) __________________________


Questions 30 - 32

Circle the appropriate letters A-D
.

30. Anne is
A Vijay's friend
B Denise's friend
C Vijay's boss
D Denise's boss.

31. When Anne speaks she
A congratulates Denise
B ignores Denise
C criticises Denise
D praises Denise.

32. When Denise replies she
A laughs at Anne
B sympathises with Anne
C argues with Anne
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D apologises to Anne.
Questions 33 - 36


Listen to the directions and match the places in questions 33 - 36 to the appropriate letter
A-H on the plan
.

33. Reception area, admissions ___________________
34. Fees office ___________________
35. Book and stationery supply ___________________
36. Travel agency ___________________




















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Section 4
Questions 37 - 41


Questions 37 - 38


Look at questions 37 - 38 below and study the grid. Tick all the relevant boxes in each
column
.

CITY
Los Angeles
London
Bankok
Hong Kong
New York
Taipei
Houston
Sydney
Paris
Tokyo
Dallas

37. Cities with old-structure 38. Cities with good public
problems transport






















Questions 39 - 41


Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS to complete these sentences
.

39. The public transport available in Houston is ________
40. To reduce peak hour traffic jams, people can travel ________
41. Vehicles carrying more than one passenger can use ________













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Listening Test 7
Section 1
Questions 1 - 8


Listen to the conversation and complete the table. Write C for Cookery, S for Sports and T for
Travel
.


Name of author

Peter Adams
Stephen Bau
Pam Campbell
C. Kezik
Ari Hussein
Sally Innes
Meg Jorgensen
Bruno Murray
Ruby Lee
Jim Wells
Helen Yeung















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C = Cookery
S = Sports
T = Travel
Example ST

(1)
(2)
S

(3)
S

(4)
(5)
(6)
(7)
(8)

.



Section 2
Questions 9 - 18


Questions 9 - 14


Look at this invitation. Tick (√) if the information is correct or write in the changes
.

Example
INVITATION TO A WELCOMING LUNCH
AT BLACKWELL HOUSE

ON FRIDAY JUNE 15 AT 8 PM
THE PARTY WILL END AT 10 PM
FREE TRANSPORT TO THE STUDENT HOSTEL IS
AVAILABLE LEAVING BLACKWELL HOUSE AT 10.30
OTHER STUDENTS MAY ATTEND
PLEASE BRING YOUR STUDENT IDENTIFICATION CARD

PLEASE REPLY BY TUESDAY IF YOU CAN COME
Answer

dance party

√

(9) ________
(10) ________

(11) ________
(12) ________

(13) ________
(14) ________

Questions 15 - 18

Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer
.

15. There is new road work on
________________ __________________________________________________ _________

16. Do not use Blackwell Street because workmen are
______________________ __________________________________________________ ___

17. When you pass the roundabout, go along Brown Crescent into
________________ __________________________________________________ _________

18. It's wise to use the
__________________________________________________ _________________________


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Section 3
Questions 19 - 29


Questions 19 - 23


Label the parts of the lawn sprinkler. Choose words from the box below. There are more
words in the box than you will need
.
Write the appropriate words on the diagram
.

holes

spray tube

hinge

guide

base

handle

hose pipe

chain guard
crank

gears

water wheel

pulley













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Questions 24-29


Circle the appropriate letter A-D
.

24. The last examinations will be held on
A November 26
B November 29
C December 2
D December 4.
25. Scott is going to the United States
A to study
B to teach
C to travel
D to visit friends.
26. The general science course in the United States is
A similar
B simple
C difficult
D different.
27. Linda has had an extension to
A complete her assignment
B do more research
C study
D go on holiday.
28. Communications and English will be examined on
A December 1 morning
B December 2 morning
C December 1 afternoon
D December 2 afternoon.
29. Mark finds teaching this class
A boring
B tiring
C depressing
D stimulating.










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Section 4
Questions 30 - 39


Questions 30 - 39


Complete the summary. Use words from the box. There are more words in the box than you
need. Some words may be used more than once
.

rest

stress

chew

noise

speak

tired
relaxed

work

exhaustion

tense

smoky.

exercise
angry

hunger

desk

study

relaxation

raised
warm

45 degrees

40 degrees

crowded





The most usual cause of headaches is (30) ________. Headaches can also come as a result of
excessive (31) ________.
Some people say they get a headache when they (32) ________. This is probably because they
get very (33) ________.
It may also be because they are working in poor light which makes them very (34) ________. It
is helpful if your reading material is on a bookrest at (35) ________ to the desk. It is also
important to be (36) ________ in bed.
You may even get a headache because you (37) ________ too hard.
The best advice is to try to eat regular meals, get enough (38) ________ and avoid (39)
________ places.















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Listening Test 8

Section 1
Questions 1 - 12


Questions 1 - 5


Circle the appropriate letter
.

Example

A Main Hall
B Great Hall
What are the students looking for?
C Old Hall
D Old Building

1 Where is the administration building?



2 How many people are waiting in the queue?
A 50 B 100 C 200 D 300

3 What does the woman order for lunch?


4 What does the woman order to drink?

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5 How much money does the woman give the man?
A $$2.00 B $$3.00 C $$3.50 D $$5.00

Questions 6 - 10


Complete the registration form using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS
.

Name of student: (6) ______________________
Address: (7) Flat 5 ______________________
Town: (8) ______________________
Tel: (9) ______________________
Course: (10) ______________________

Questions 11 - 12


11 What did the man buy for her to eat?



12 What must the students do as part of registration at the university?
A Check the notice board in the Law Faculty.
B Find out about lectures.
C Organise tutorial groups.
D Pay the union fees.


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Section 2
Questions 13 - 21


Complete the notes. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer
.

STUDENT BANKING

Recommended Banks
Barclays
National Westminster
Lloyds
Midland
Location

Realty Square
Example:
Preston Park

City Plaza
(13) ________

Note: May not be allowed all facilities given to resident students.

Funding
■ Must provide (14) ________ I can support myself.
■ Services will depend on personal circumstances and discretion of Bank Manager.

Opening an account
■ Take with me: (15) ________ and letter of enrolment.
■ Recommended account: (16) ________
■ Bank supplies: (17) ________ and chequecard which guarantees cheques.

Other services
■ Cashcard: (you can (18) ________ cash at any time.)
■ SwitchDelta cards: (take the money (19) ________ the account.)

Overdraft
■ Must have (20) ________
■ Sometimes must pay interest.

Opening times
■ Most banks open until (21) ________ during the week.
■ Some open for a limited time on Saturdays.










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Section 3
Questions 22 - 31


Complete the factsheet. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer
.

FACTSHEET-Aluminium Cans

● (22) ________ produced every day in the US — more cans produced than nails or (23)
________

● each can weighs 0.48 ounces — thinner than two (24) ________

● can take more than 90 pounds of pressure per square inch — over (25) ________ the
pressure of a car tyre

Questions 26 - 31


Lable the aluminum can. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer
.














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Section 4
Questions 32 - 42


Questions 32 - 42


Complete the Lecture notes. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer
.

Purpose of the mini lecture
To experience To find out about
(32) _____________________________ (33) _____________________________


The three strands of Sports Studies are:
a Sports psychology
b Sports (34) _____________________________
c Sports physiology

a The psychologists work with (35) _____________________________
They want to discover what (36) _____________________________

b Sports marketing looks at (37) _____________________________
Sport now competes with (38) _____________________________
Spectators want (39) _____________________________

c Sports physiology is also known as
(40) _____________________________
Macro levels look at (41) _____________________________
Micro level looks at (42) _____________________________












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第三部分 全真模拟题答案
Listening Test 1
Section 1
Questions 1 - 9


1 (aone1) double bedroom
2 ? 90ninety pounds NOT 90ninety
3 01273Brighton 742735
4 near (railway) stationcentral
5 ? 68sixty eight pounds NOT 68sixty eight
6 Mrs (P) Tonks (
must be spelt correctly
)
7 (in) 2 weeks (time) soon
8 (in) (the) (entrance) hall
9 (by) radiators (in rooms) NOT radiator

Section 2

Questions 10 - 20


10 A
11 C
12 D
13 B
14 A
15 C
16 E
17 G
18 √
19 Green (Room)
20 √

Section 3

Questions 21 - 32


21 R
22 25ptwenty five pence NOT 25twenty five
23 23ptwenty three pence NOT 23twenty three
24 R
25 2
26 2
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27 1
28 2
29 3
30 2
31 3
32 2

Section 4

Questions 33 - 40


33 √
for
Denmark, Holland, Sweden, Germany (
All 4 ticked = 1 mark
)
34 √
for
France
35 √
for
Japan, Germany, USA (
All 3 ticked = 1 mark
)
36 (in) (the) 1950s NOT 1950
37 lime
38 yes
39 very90%ninety per cent
40 expensive




Listening Test 2
Section 1

Questions 1 - 9


1 12 00012 thousand
2 boringno entertainment
3 fishing
4 cost of living expensive
5 cold and wet
6 (large) park
7 the weather
8 when she retires
9 5 years

Section 2

Questions 10 - 19


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10 E
11 D
12 B
13 keephave your ticket
14 complaints
15 (modern) ballet
16 9.00
17 3
18 11.15
19 country and westerncountry western music

Section 3

Questions 20 - 29


20 C
21 B
22 B
23 role models
24 (significant) minority
25 reality real (life)
26 70
27 public opinion
28 (the) shopping mall
29 short (and) specific multiple choice simple

Section 4

Questions 30 - 40


30 bad work good
31 (it) cuts wastage
32 (it) saves time
33 62%
34 safety
35 (the) manufacturing process
36 C
37 B
38 A
39 B or D
40 D or B



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Listening Test 3
Section 1

1 student accommodationhostel
2 awful food
3 not friendlykept to themselves (
do not accept 'lonely'
)
4 lecturers (too) busy
5 regular meetingsmeetings with lecturersfortnightly meetings
6 familyhomestay
7 lot of noisechildren made noisedifficult to study
8 student house
9 (Bachelor of) Computing
10 reserve computer time

Section 2

11 mountain
12 quality
13 $$2,000
14 shortcasual rides
15 town ridingshopping
16 serious touring
17 similaralmost the same
18 better quality (components)
19 buying clothes
20 frame

Section 3

21 B
22 C
23 D
24 B
25 one bunch
26 15 months
27 uphillon hillsides
28 lots ofplenty of water
29 plastic bags


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30 bananasones (to) ripen
31 C
either

32 D
way round


Section 4


33 B
34 D
35 C
36 cooking
37 (regular) daily intake
38 (a) variety
39 the darkthe fridgea cool placea dark place
40 eat in moderationnot too much
41 eat lotseat most



Listening Test 4
1. D
2. B
3. B
4. √
5. √
6. Canadaoverseas
7. Queensland
8. Ballantyne (
must be spelled correctly
)
9. 7743 - 2129
10. American Express
11. 175
12. E
13. H
14. B
15. 70seventy
16. 13thirteen
17. A
18. D
19. C
20 - 21. G;B (
either order
)
22. 30thirty million
23. second2nd
24. below 600 metres
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25. instant (coffee)
26. blended (coffee)
27. Uganda
28. Brazil, USA, UK (
must be all THREE
)
29. Italy
30. France, Germany, Japan (
must be all THREE
)
31. (the) United Nations or UN
32. Freezing (weather)
33. B
34. content
35. process

36. B
37. E
38. A
39. C
40. E
41. D

Listening Test 5

1. history
2. B
3. F
4. D
5. D
6. C
7. 9nine
8. Wednesday
9. Tuesday
10. 3three
11. 10ten
12. 1100
13. northeast
14. rectanglerectangularsquare
15. warm
16. northwest
17. 2two million
18. beach(es)
19. 250 000
20. hot springsmineral bathsbushwalkingmountains
21. southwest
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22. Spanish
23. wine
24. 2two
25. 1one
26. 4four
27. D
28. A
29. C
30. Japan
31. fashionable
32. liver
33. cigarette smokesmoking
34. formal introduction(s)formal situation(s)

35. not interested
36. G
37. C
38. D
39. H
40. A
41. F
42. E


Listening Test 6

Section 1

Questions 1 - 12

1. 10 Bridge Street
2. writingwriting class
3. Mrs, Green
4. July 15(th) 15(th) July 157
5. 1 one
6. May 31(st) 31(st) May 315
7. June 4(th) 4(th) June 64
8. 3 three(days)
9. A
10. C
11. B
12. B
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Section 2

Questions 13 - 24

13. garbage
14. garbage
15. garbage
16. paper
17. charity
18. filters
19. A
20. B
21. D
22. B
23. D
24. C

Section 3

Questions 25 - 36
25. Spanish
26. Building A
27. 6 P.M.
28. Elementary 1 one
29. August 10(th) 10(th) August 108
30. D
31. C
32. D
33. A
34. D
35. F
36. G

Section 4

Questions 37 - 41

37. London, New York, Sydney, Paris, Tokyo
38. London, Hong Kong, New York, Sydney, Paris
39. (very) (extremely) poor
40. at different times
41. special (driving priority) lanes

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Listening Test 7
Section 1

Questions 1 - 8

1. C
2. T
3. CT
4. CST
5. T
6. T
7. S
8. C

Section 2

Questions 9 - 18

9. √
10. 11(pm)
11. 11.30(pm)
12. √
13. √
14. Thurs Thursday
15. Smith Street
16. laying (telephone cables)
17. (the) college grounds
18. side door


Section 3

Questions 19 - 29

19. water wheel
20. gears
21. spray tube
22. holes
23. base
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24. C
25. A
26. A
27. A
28. B
29. D

Section 4

Questions 30 - 39

30. hunger
31. noise
32. study
33. tense
34. tired
35. 45 degrees
36. relaxed
37. chew
38. exercise
39. smoky


Listening Test 8
Section 1

1 C
2 A
3 B
4 D
5 D
6 Julia Perkins (
must be correct spelling with capital letters
)
7 15 Waratah Road (
must be correct spelling of Waratah with capital letter
)
8 Brisbane (
must have capital letter
)
9 to be advisednot connectedno phonenone (
blank not acceptable
)
10 first year Law (
must have all three words
)
11 C
12 D

Section 2

13 Hope Street (
must have capitals
)
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14 evidence
15 passport
16 currentstudent(account)
17 chequebook
18 withdrawdraw(out)take out
19 directly fromright out of
20 permission offrom bank
21 4.30 pm orto 5 pm

Section 3

22 300 million
23 paper clips
24 magazine pagespieces of paperpages
25 three times
26 thicker
27 label
28 (a) dome
29 flange (
correct spelling
)

30 25%
31 scored opening


Section 4

32 a university lecture
33 Sports Studies (programme)
34 management
35 top athletes
36 makes winnersmakes thempeople win
37 market forces
38 (other)leisure activities
39 entertainmentto be entertained
40 exercise science
41 fitness testingbody measurements
42 cellular researchcellular changebody cells
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